1. What are the characteristics of software?
a. Software is developed
or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.
b. Software doesn’t “wear out”.
c. Software can be
custom built or custom build.
d. All mentioned above
2. SDLC stands for
a. Software Development Life Cycle
b. System Development Life Cycle
c. Software Design Life Cycle
d. System Design Life Cycle
3. Find out
which phase is not available in SDLC?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. Abstraction
4. Design phase is followed by ______.
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. None of the above
5. What is the main aim of Software engineering?
a. Reliable software
b. Cost effective software
c. Reliable and cost effective software
d. None of the above
29. Which model
is also known as verification and
validation model?
a. Waterfall model
b. Spiral model
c. COCOMO model
d. None of the above
30. Which two models will not be able to
give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a. Waterfall and spiral
b. RAD and spiral
c. RAD and waterfall
d. RAD and prototyping
31. Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which
contains _________.
a. Project planning
b. Scope management
c. Project estimation
d. All mentioned above
32. Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are
those four P’s?
a. People, performance, payment,
product
b. People, product, process,
project
c. People, product, performance,
project
d. All of the above.
33. Software
project manager is engaged with software management activities. He is
responsible for ______.
a. Project planning.
b. Monitoring the progress
c. Communication among stakeholders
d. All mentioned above
34. Requirement
engineering process includes which of these steps?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Software Requirement specification
& Validation
d. All mentioned above
35. In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry
W. Boehm?
a. Putnam model
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
36. COCOMO stands for ______ .
a. COnsumed COst Model
b. COnstructive COst Model
c. COmmon COntrol Model
d. COmposition COst Model
37. Line
of code (LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
a. Indirect measures
b. Direct measures
c. Coding
d. None of the above.
38. Who
proposed Function Points?
a. Albrecht
b. Jacobson
c. Boehm
d. Booch
41. What is the most common measure of
correctness?
a. Defects per KLOC
b. Errors per KLOC
c. $ per KLOC
d. Pages of documentation per KLOC
42. Which is the
estimation software size should be known?
a. Time estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
43. SFD stands for
a. System Flow Diagram
b. System Function Diagram
c. System Flow Diagraph
d. System Feasible Diagram
44. QFD stands for
a. Quality Function Deployment
b. Quality Function Development
c. Quality Function Diagram
d. Quality Function Design
45. The degree of
interaction between two modules is known as
a. Cohesion
b. Strength
c. Inheritance
d. Coupling
46. Which coupling is known as ‘global coupling’?
a. Content coupling
b. Stamp coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Common coupling
47. The worst type of coupling is
a. Data coupling
b. Control coupling
c. Stamp coupling
d. Content coupling
48. The desired level of coupling is ________
a. No coupling
b. Control coupling
c. Common coupling
d. Data coupling
49. How
many type of cohesion are there in software design?
a.
5
b.
6
c. 7
d. 8
50.
Which
of the following defines the degree of intra-dependability within elements of a
module?
a.
Cohesion
b.
Coupling
c.
Design Verification
d.
None of the above
51.
Which
of the following is the best type of cohesion?
a.
Functional Cohesion
b.
Temporal Cohesion
c.
Functional Cohesion
d.
Sequential Cohesion
52. Arrange the following types of cohesion
from best to worst type.
A. Logical
Cohesion
B. Sequential
cohesion
C. Communicational
Cohesion
D. Temporal
Cohesion
E. Procedural
cohesion
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
a.
AÃ DÃ EÃ CÃ B
b.
AÃ EÃ DÃ CÃ B
c.
BÃ EÃ CÃ DÃ A
d.
BÃ CÃ EÃ DÃ A
53. The worst form of module cohesion
is___________.
a. Coincidental Cohesion
b. Functional Cohesion
c. Temporal Cohesion
d. Logical Cohesion
54. Which
among the following measures how strongly the elements within a module are
related?
a. Coupling
b. Cohesion
c. Aggregation
d. Inheritance
55. When multiple modules have read and write access to some global data, it
is called, ________.
a. Content coupling
b. Content coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Common coupling
56. What
do you call when two modules are coupled, when they communicate via a composite
data item?
a. Content
coupling
b. Common
coupling
c. Control
coupling
d. Stamp coupling
57. When
multiple modules share common data structure and work on different part of it,
it is called ___________.
a.
Common coupling
b.
Share coupling
c.
Data coupling
d.
Stamp coupling
58. Coupling and cohesion can be
represented using a
a. Dependence matrix
b. SRS
c. Cause-effect graph
d. Structure chart
59. When elements of module are
grouped together that are executed sequentially in order to perform a task, is
called ______.
a. Procedural cohesion
b. Logical cohesion
c. Emporal cohesion
d. Co-incidental cohesion
60. When
elements of module are grouped because the output of one element serves as
input to another and so on, it is called __.
a. Functional cohesion
b. Sequential cohesion
c. Communicational cohesion
d. Procedural cohesion
61. Grouping
of all functionally related elements is known as ______.
a. Cohesion
b. Coupling
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
62. What
do you call, when the elements of a module, all operate on the same data?
a. Functional
cohesion
b. Temporal
cohesion
c. Procedural
cohesion
d. Communicational cohesion
63. A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a. Strongly
coupled
b. Weakly
cohesive
c. Strongly
coupled and weakly cohesive
d. Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled
64. Which is not a diagram studied in Requirement
Analysis?
a. Use case
b. E-R diagram
c. State transition diagram
d. Activity diagram
65. Which tool
is used for structured designing?
a. Program flowchart
b. Structure chart
c. Data flow diagram
d. Gantt chart
66. In size
oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the number of
a. Functions
b. User inputs
c. Lines of codes
d. None of the above
67. What
encapsulates both data and functions?
a. Object
b. Class
c. Superclass
d. Subclass
68. The relationship
between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is referred to as
a. Association
b. Inheritance
c. Polymorphism
d. Instantiation
69. Which is not a project management goal?
a. Avoiding customer complaints
b. Maintaining well functioning developing team
c. Delivering the software to the customer at the
agreed time
d. Keeping overall cost within budget
70. A 66.6% risk
is considered as
a. Very low
b. Low
c. High
d. Moderate
71. Quality
planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a. Team
b. Project
c. Customer
d. Project manager
72. What
describes the data and control to be processed?
a. Planning process
b. Software scope
c. External hardware
d. Project complexity
73. What
establishes the profile of end users of the system?
a. Design model
b. User’s model
c. Mental image
d. System image
74. Activities and action taken
on the data are represented by circle or a round-edged rectangle is called _____.
a. Entities
b. Process
c. Data storage
d. Data flow
75. An entity in ER Model is a
real world being, which has some properties called_____.
a. Attributes
b. Relationship
c. Domain
d. None of the above
76. How many
layers are present in the object
oriented design pyramid?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 1
77. OOD languages provide a
mechanism where methods performing similar tasks but vary in arguments and that
can be assigned to the same name is called _____________.
a. Classes
b. Object
c. Polymorphism
d. Encapsulation
78. In
OOD, the attributes (data variables) and methods( operation on the data) are
bundled together is called _______ .
a. Classes
b. Objects
c. Encapsulation
d. Inheritance
79. Which of the
following is not desired in
determining function point?
a. User input
b. User inquiries
c. External interfaces
d. Errors
80. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?
a. Direct relation
b. Inverse relation
c. No relation
d. Can’t determine
81. What is MTTF?
a. Maximum time to failure
b. Mean time to failure
c. Minimum time to failure
d. None of the above
82. How is
software reliability defined?
a. Time
b. Efficiency
c. Quality
d. Speed
83. Testing can be applied to:
a. Requirement
b. Analysis
c. Design
d. Code
84. Identify the incorrect testing technique.
a. Integration
testing
b. Collaboration
testing
c. System
testing
d. Unit
testing
85. One of the fault base testing is :
a. Unit testing
b.
Beta testing
c. Stress testing
d.
Mutation testing
86. Code is checked in
which type of testing?
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Green box testing
d. Red box testing
87. Which
testing is performed by the user?
a. Acceptance testing
b. Unit testing
c. Compatibility testing
d. None of these
88. Alpha and beta testing are forms of
a. Acceptance testing
b. Unit testing
c. System testing
d. Integration
89. White box testing can be started :
a. After SRS creation
b. After designing
c. After programming
d. After installation
90. Black box testing is also called
a. Specification-based testing
b. Structural
testing
c. Verification
d. Unit testing
91. What is
cyclomatic complexity?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Yellow box testing
d. Green box testing
92. In which of the
following categories can white-box testing be classified?
a. Design
based testing
b. Structural
testing
c. Error
guessing technique
d. None of the above
93. Alpha
testing is done at
a. Developer’s end
b. User’s end
c. Developer’s and user’s end
d. None of the above
94. Statement
and branch coverage metrics are part of :
a. Analysis model
b. Testing
c. Design model
d. Source code
95. Testing of
data with actual data and in actual
environment is called :
a. Alpha testing
b. Beta testing
c. Regression testing
d. None of the above
96. Which of the
following is the form of Alpha and Beta
testing?
a. System testing
b. Unit testing
c. Acceptance testing
d. Integration testing
97. Software Maintenance includes
a. Error corrections
b. Enhancements of capabilities
c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d. All of the mentioned
98. Maintenance
is classified into how many categories?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
99. Which of the following is not a type of maintenance?
a. Adaptive Maintenance
b. Preventive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. Performative Maintenance
100. The modification of the software to match
changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of
software maintenance?
a. Corrective
b. Adaptive
c. Perfective
d. Preventive
102. Which
testing is the re-execution of some subsets of tests that have already been
conducted to ensure the changes that are not propagated?
a. Unit testing
b. Regression testing
c. Integration testing
d. Thread based testing
103. Which includes modifications
and updations done in order to correct or fix the problems that are either
discovered by user or concluded by user error reports?
a. Perfective maintenance
b. Adaptive maintenance
c. Corrective maintenance
d. Preventive maintenance
104. Changes
are made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called
_________.
a. Preventive Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Corrective Maintenance
d. Perfective Maintenance
106. Modifying the software to match changes in
the ever changing environment comes
under which maintenance?
a. Adaptive
b. Corrective
c. Perfective
d. Preventive
110. Which of the following are parameters
involved in computing the total cost of
a software development project?
a. Hardware and software cost
b. Effort cost
c. Travel and training cost
d. All of the
above
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